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RBI Assistants Exam Model Question Papers 2012


                                                                                                    RBI EXAM SOLVED QUESTION PAPERS
Reasoning Test
1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)
 
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)
 
3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER,using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)
 
4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.
How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
 
5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
 
6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)
 
7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
 
8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
 
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)
 
10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
 
Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.
 
11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)
 
12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)
 
13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)
 
14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)
 
15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)
 
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions,which follow :
489 – 541 – 654 – 953 – 983
16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)
 
17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)
 
18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)
 
19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)
 
20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)
 
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions,which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’
 
21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
 
22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
 
23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
 
24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
 
25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
 
Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :
Letters          # Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol # 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the
vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are
to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be
coded as ©.
26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
 
27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
 
Directions—(Q. 28–30) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends,two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.
28. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
 
29. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
 
33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Numerical Ability Test

1.Let R = qs—4. When s=8, R=16. When s=10, R is equal to
a. 11
b. 14
c. 20
d. 21
Ans :: d
 
2. If 272/3 × 81-1/2 = 3x, the value of x is
a. -1
b. 0
c. 1
d. 2
Ans :: b
 
3. 0.333 …. × 0.444 …. is equal to
a. 0.148148148 ….
b. 0.777 ….
c. 0.121212 ….
d. 1.333 ….
Answer-a
5. On converting the following base-2 numeral in base ten, 1101101, we get
a. 96
b. 104
c. 108
d. 109
Ans:: d
 
6. The number of prime factors of (6)10×(7)17×(55)27
a. 54
b. 64
c. 81
d. 91
Ans:: d
 
7. A train crosses a pole in 15 seconds, while it crosses 100 meter long platform in 25 seconds. The length of the train is -
a. 125m
b. 135 m
c. 159 m
d. 175 m
Ans:: c
 
8.Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. If both the taps are opened simultaneously and the tap A is closed after 3 minutes, then how much more time will it take to fill the tank by tap B?
a. 7 min & 15 sec
b. 7 min & 45 sec
c. 8 min & 5 sec
d. 8 min & 15 sec
Ans:: d
 
9. The milk and water in two vessels A and B are in the ratio 4:3 and 2:3 respectively. In what ratio, the liquids be mixed in both the vessels so that the new liquid contains half milk and half water?
a. 7:5
b. 1:2
c. 2:1
d. 6:5
Ans:: a
 
10.A car covers a distance of 715 km at a constant speed. If the speed of the car would have been 10 km/hr more, then it would have taken 2 hours less to cover the same distance. What is the original speed of the car?
a. 45 km/hr
b. 50 km/hr
c. 55 km/hr
d. 65 km/hr
Ans:: c
 
11. A person covered some distance in 12 hours. He covered half the distance by rail  at the rate of 75 km per hour and the rest by car at the rate of 45 km/hr. The total distance covered by him was
a. 450 km
b. 675 km
c. 337.5 km
d. 1350 km
Ans:: b
 
12. A sum of Rs. 427 is to be divided among A, B and C in such a way that 3 times A’s share, 4 times B’s share and 7 times C’s share are all equal. The share of C is
a. Rs. 84
b. Rs. 147
c. Rs. 196
d. Rs. 240
Ans:: a
 
13. A and B entered into a partnership investing Rs. 12000 and Rs. 9000 respectively. After 3 months C also joined them with a capital of Rs. 15000. The share of C in the half yearly profit of Rs. 9500 is
a. Rs. 3500
b. Rs. 3000
c. Rs. 2500
d. Rs. 4000
Ans:: c
 
14.The ratio of income of A and B is 5:4 and their expenditure is as 3:2. If at the end of  the year, each saves Rs. 800, then the income of A is
a. Rs. 1700
b. Rs. 1800
c. Rs. 2000
d. Rs. 2200
Ans:: c
 
15.A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked at it for 10 days together and then B left. The remaining work was done by A alone in 30 more days. B alone can finish the work in
a. 48 days
b. 60 days
c. 75 days
d. 90 days
Ans:: d
 
16.The ratio between the curved surface area and the total surface area of a right  circular cylinder is 1:2. If the total surface is 616 sq. cm, the volume of the cylinder is a. 1848 cm3
b. 1232 cm3
c. 1078 cm3
d. 980 cm3
Ans:: c
 
17.A circular wire of radius 42 cm is cut and bent in the form of a rectangle whose sides are in the ratio of 6 : 5. The smaller side of the rectangle is
a. 30 cm
b. 60 cm
c. 72 cm
d. 108 cm
Ans:: b
 
18.A man walking at the rate of 6km per hour crosses a square field diagonally in 9 seconds. The area of the field is-
a. 125 sq. cm
b. 112.5 sq. cm
c. 110 sq. cm
d. 100?2 sq. m
Ans:: b
 
19.A rectangular carpet has an area of 240 sq. cm. If its diagonal and the longer side are together equal to five times the shorter side, the length of the carpet is -
a. 10 cm
b. 24 cm
c. 26 cm
d. 27.5 cm
Answer-b
 
20.The ratio of 435 : 25 is same as
a. 4 : 1
b. 2 :1
c. 7 : 5
d. 7 :10
Answer-a
 
21. A sphere and a cube have equal surface areas. The ratio of the volume of the sphere  to that of the cube is
a. ?? : ?6
b. ?? : ?6
c. ?? : ?3
d. ?6 : ??
Answer-d
 
22.The marked price of a table is Rs. 3000 and is available at successive discounts of  20% and 10% respectively. If there is an additional discount of 5% on cash payment,then what is the cash price of the table?
a. Rs. 2400
b. Rs. 2160
c. Rs. 2100
d. Rs. 2052
Ans:: d
 
23. A certain sum becomes Rs. 5290 in 2 years and Rs. 6083.50 in 3 years at C.I. The rate of interest per annum is
a. 10%
b. 12%
c. 15%
d. 16? %
Ans:: c
 
24.A person borrowed Rs. 500@ 3% per annum S.I and Rs. 600 @4½% per annum on the agreement that the whole amount will be returned only when the total interest becomes Rs. 126. The number of years, after which the borrowed sum is to be returned,is
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Answer-b
 
25.A sum of Rs. 12,000 doubles in 5 years at C.I. What will be the amount after 20 years?
a. Rs. 1,20,000
b. Rs. 1,92,000
c. Rs. 1,24,000
d. Rs. 96,000
Ans:: b
 
26. A person sold 320 mangoes for the C.P. of 400 mangoes. His gain percent is
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 12½%
d. 25%
Ans:: d
 
27. A person bought some oranges @ Rs. 10 per dozen and bought the same amount of  oranges @ Rs. 8 per dozen. He sold these oranges @ Rs. 11 per dozen and gained Rs. 120. The total number of oranges bought by him was
a. 30 dozen
b. 40 dozen
c. 50 dozen
d. 60 dozen
Answer-d
 
28.On selling a certain commodity for Rs. 425, there is as much gain as loss on selling it  for Rs. 355. The C.P. of the commodity is
a. Rs. 370
b. Rs. 385
c. Rs. 390
d. Rs. 400
Answer-c
 
29.A sum of Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in three years at S.I. If the rate of interest is increased by 5% then the amount will increase to
a. Rs. 950
b. Rs. 980
c. Rs. 1010
d. Rs. 1040
Ans:: d
 
30.Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of the three numbers is 44, the largest number is
a. 24
b. 36
c. 17
d. 72
Ans:: d
 
General English Test

Directions—(Q. 1 to 15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
The Emperor’s brother-in-law was also his Prime Minister and his avourite courtier.He was not liked by the other courtiers as a result. Jealous of the Emperor’s brother in law the courtiers once said,“Your Majesty,why don’t you appoint one of us as Prime Minister ?Subject us to a test
to see who is truly the right person to be Prime Minister.”At the time the Prime Minister was out hunting with another courtier.
In pursuit  of  their prey they mistakenly rode in to the neighbouring kingdom.As they were strangers and had weapons they were arrested
as spies by the soldiers there and were certain to be sentenced to death by the ruler, King Amir.The courtier was petrified and bowed
his head in prayer.
The Prime Minister pretending to be praying whispered something in his ear. The two of them then began arguing. “I should be the one to die first !”each of them said. Those present were astonished to hear their argument. The soldiers brought the two before King Amir. He was astonished to hear of their strange behaviour.“Tell me why you are so eager to die ?” Pretending to be reluctant to reveal the reason the Prime

Minister bowed respectfully and said,“Sir,our Emperor has a secret wish of annexing your kingdom. If  you kill us the Emperor can attack your
kingdom on the pretext of avenging our deaths. The Emperor has also promised us  a great reward for our sacrifice. We felt that in case you changed your mind and set one of us free to return home he would not get the reward.”King Amir was worried when he heard this. Concerned
that the lives of his  subjects would be lost in war, King Amir refused to kill either of  the two and sent them home. When they heard about the
incident the Emperor’s  courtiers bowed their  heads. They were ashamed. They realised the Emperor had made a wise choice in selecting his Prime Minister.

1. Why were the courtiers not on good terms with the Emperor’s brother-in-law ?
(A) The Emperor used to only heed his brother-in-law’s advice
(B) He was cleverer than they were and he would remind them of  it
(C) He was empowered to take decisions on behalf of the Emperor
(D) He  had more power and  prestige and earned more than they did
(E) None of these
 
2. Why Emperor’s two courtiers enter the neighbouring kingdom ?
(A) The    Emperor had asked them to deliver a message to its king
(B) They wanted to spy on the neighbouring kingdom
(C) They had accidentally wandered into neighbouring territory
(D) The other courtiers had set a trap for them
(E) Their curiosity about the kingdom led them to enter it
 
3. Why was the Emperor’s brother in-law not afraid when faced with death ?
1. He felt that if he told King Amir the truth his life would be spared.
2. He was confident that he would be rescued.
3. He had prayed fervently asking God to save them.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) Only 3
 
4. Which of the following can be said about the Emperor ?
(A) He reserved important posts for his family members
(B) He had chosen a worthy Prime Minister
(C) He was ruthless and wanted to conquer the neighbouring kingdom
(D) He treated all his courtiers shabbily except his brother-inlaw
(E) He deliberately endangered the lives of his courtiers in order to test them
 
5. Why did the two courtiers begin to argue with each other ?
(A) They wanted to distract the soldiers so they could escape
(B) It was a delaying tactics till they were rescued
(C) They blamed each other for the predicament they were in
(D) The Prime Minister wanted to stop the other courtier from divulging the Emperor’s plan to the enemy
(E) None of these
 
6. What surprised King Amir about the courtiers’ behaviour ?
1. They were very respectful to him although he had condemned them to death.
2. Each was volunteering to be killed first.
3. They had managed to convince the soldiers to set them free.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these
 
7. Why did King Amir set the two courtiers free ?
(A) He believed their story that the Emperor was planning to attack
(B) He had great respect for their courage
(C) He had ascertained they were not spies so he set them free
(D) He was impressed by the wisdom of the Emperor’s courtiers
(E) None of these
 
8. Which of the following does not describe the Emperor’s reaction to the courtiers’
request to appoint one of them as Prime Minister ?
1. He thought about asking his brother-in-law to resign.
2. He tested his brother-in-law to prove he was best suited for the post of Prime
Minister.
3. He disregarded it completely and punished the courtiers.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 3
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
 
9. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage ?
(A) King Amir was concerned about the welfare of his people
(B) The Emperor’s brother-inlaw had enemies at court
(C) King Amir set the Emperor’s brother-in-law free on account of his bravery
(D) The Emperor’s brother-inlaw was deserving of the post of Prime Minister
(E) The Prime Minister was a quick thinker
 
10. What was the courtiers’ reaction when they heard about the Prime Minister’s safe
return ?
(A) They were disappointed because their plan had failed
(B) They were ashamed of their plot to kill him
(C) They were upset to hear about his bad experience
(D) They bowed in respect and praised his wisdom
(E) None of these
 
Directions–(Q. 11 to 13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the
word printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. subject
(A) topic
(B) undergo
(C) expose
(D) citizen
(E) accountable
 
12. pretext
(A) excuse
(B) guess
(C) crime
(D) example
(E) fraud
 
13. petrified
(A) panic
(B) scared
(C) feared
(D) alarming
(E) terror
 
Directions—(Q. 14 and 15) Choose the word which is most oppositein meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
14. right
(A) immoral
(B) unsuitable
(C) inaccurate
(D) inconvenient
(E) error
 
15. reveal
(A) secret
(B) darken
(C) disclose
(D) hide
(E) invisible
 
Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
16. In these circumstances, they will not be able to meet the assign target to them.
(A) targeted assignment
(B) assigned target
(C) assigning of target
(D) target assigned
(E) No correction required
 
17. Banks must be ensured that 18 per cent of their loans is given to the agricultural sector.
(A) are ensured
(B) have to ensure
(C) being ensured
(D) should be ensured
(E) No correction required
 
18. The government has announced several initiatives benefiting to factory workers.
(A) beneficial
(B) for benefiting to
(C) which will benefit
(D) benefited to
(E) No correction required
 
19. A date for the committee meeting to discuss the details of the proposal has yet to be decided.
(A) will be yet decided
(B) is been decided yet
(C) have not been still decided
(D) is not yet been decided
(E) No correction required
 
20. With the raining heavily the multi-storey office building was badly damaged and collapsed.
(A) Owing to the heavy rains
(B) Because of raining heavily
(C) Since heavily it rained
(D) In raining heavily
(E) No correction required
 
Directions—(Q. 21 to 25) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed inbold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.
21. Since petroleum products are taxed (A) heavily they are a majar(B) source (C) of revenue (D) for the government. All correct (E)
22. Even though the proposal appearrs (A) practical (B) the committee should discuss (C) it at length. (D) All correct (E)
23. The Indian stock market has been one of the well (A)performing (B) markets globally (C) during the current (D) year. All correct (E)
24. Had the scheme been allowed (A) to continue (B) it would have generated (C) attracted (D) returns. All correct (E)
25. People should constantly (A) upgrade their skills (B) in order to be effective (C) and efficient. (D) All correct (E)
 
Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4),(5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
1. With all this experimentation he incurred an expenditure of over a million dollars before success smiled on him.
2. Edison invented the long lasting electric light bulb.
3. To find a fibre to burn inside a bulb he experimented with over two thousand items.
4. We thus owe the miracle of light as much to his perseverance as to his genius.
5. However he did not invent it overnight.
6. His friends too travelled all over the world from South America to India in search of a suitable fibre.
 
26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
 
27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
 
28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
 
29. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
 
30. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after
rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
 
Directions—(Q. 31 to 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E).(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
31. Senior citizens prefer (A) / banks which (B) / branches are located (C) / near their homes. (D) No error (E)
32. In the latest statistics (A) / China supplies more than (B) / ninety per cent of the (C) / steel imported by India. (D) No error (E)
33. We shall be calling a meeting (A) / next week to assess (B) / the causes of frequently (C) / delays in infrastructure projects. (D) No error (E)
34. Although it has received (A) / clearance from RBI the bank (B) / has decided not to open (C) / their office in Hongkong. (D) No error (E)
35. Most of the tribals (A) / in the region (B) / are depended on the forest (C) / to earn their livelihoods. (D) No error (E)
 
Answers :: 1. (E) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (E) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (E) 9. (C) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (E) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (E) 24. (D) 25. (E) 26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (C) 29. (E) 30. (C) 31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (C)
 

General Awareness Test

1Q. Which one of the following is the percentage upto which FDI in defense sector is allowed ?
(A) 26%
(B) 41%
(C) 31%
(D) 49%
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)2Q. Whenever RBI does some Open Market Operation Transactions, actually it wishes to
regulate which of the following ?
(A) Inflation only
(B) Liquidity in economy
(C) Borrowing powers of the banks
(D) Flow of Foreign Direct Investments
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)

 
3Q. The maximum amount of the Total Revenue earned by the Govt. of India comes from—
(A) Income Tax
(B) Customs Duty
(C) Excise Duty
(D) Value Added Tax
(E) Corporate Tax
Answer : (E)
 
4Q. In economics it is generally believed that the main objective of a Public Sector Financial
Company like Bank is to—
(A) Employ more and more people
(B) Maximize total profits
(C) Maximize total production
(D) Provide financial service to the people of the nation of its origin across the country
(E) Sell the goods at subsidized cost
Answer : (D)5Q. Which of the following is TRUE about the ‘Single—EURO Payment Area’ a concept very much in news these days ?
1. It is a concept floated by European Union.
2. It aims to create an integrated market for payment services in EURO.
3. It is a contract to convert all US dollar payments into EURO, which is a currency almost free
from fluctuations in its value.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)

 
6Q. What is a Repo Rate ?
(A) It is a rate of which RBI sell Govt. securities to banks
(B) It is a rate at which RBI buys Govt. securities from banks
(C) It is a rate at which RBI allows small loans in the market
(D) It is a rate which is offered by Banks to their most valued customers or prime customers
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)7Q. In a Company the use of price sensitive corporate information by the Company-people to make gains or cover losses is known as—
(A) Insider trading
(B) Future trading
(C) Foreign trading
(D) Stock trading
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)

8Q. As per the directives issued by the Prime Minister’s Economic Advisory Council (EAC), the percentage of the current account deficit (of the total GDP) during 2008-2009 should not be more than—
(A) 2•8%
(B) 3•0%
(C) 3•1%
(D) 3•2%
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)

9Q. The agricultural census is done at which of the following intervals ?

(A) There is no fixed term
(B) Every year
(C) Once in three years
(D) Once in ten years
(E) Once in five years
Answer : (E)10. Which of the following cannot be called as a Debt Instrument as referred in financial transactions ?
(A) Certificate of Deposits
(B) Bonds
(C) Stocks
(D) Commercial Papers
(E) Loans
Answer : (C)

11Q. The amount of which of the following reflects the overall budgetary position of the Govt. of  India at a given time ?
(A) Revenue Deficit
(B) Total Amount of Income Tax collected
(C) Capital Deficit
(D) Fiscal Deficit
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)

12Q. The 11th Five Year Plan is termed as plan for—
(A) India’s Health
(B) Eradication of poverty from India
(C) India’s Education
(D) Development of Rural India
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)

13Q. Who amongst the following gave the concept of PURA (Providing Urban facilities in Rural Areas) ?
(A) Rajiv Gandhi
(B) Manmohan Singh
(C) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(D) Sonia Gandhi
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)

 
14Q. The higher rate of growth of economy certainly reduces the—
(A) Gender inequalities
(B) Poverty
(C) Population of a country
(D) Flow of foreign direct investment
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
 
15Q. Bharat Nirman does not cover which of the following areas ?
(A) Rural employment
(B) Rural Housing
(C) Rural Water supply
(D) Irrigation facilities
(E) It covers all the above areas
Answer : (A)
 
16Q. Which of the following committees has given its recommendations on ‘Financial Inclusion’ ?
(A) Rakesh Mohan Committee
(B) Rangarajan Committee
(C) Sinha Committee
(D) Kelkar Committee
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
 
17Q. Which of the following correctly describes what sub-prime lending is ?
1. Lending to the people who cannot return the loans.
2. Lending to the people who are high value customers of the banks.
3. Lending to those who are not a regular customer of a bank.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
 
18Q. Which of the following is/are the major concepts visible in today’s banking industry in  India ?
1. Risk Based Management
2. Growing competition
3. IT Initiatives
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Answer : (A)
 
19Q. Which of the following services provided by a bank in India is not liable for Service Tax as
per existing laws ?
(A) Safe Deposit Lockers
(B) Merchant Banking Services
(C) Credit cards
(D) Discount earned on certain discounted bills
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)
20Q. The actual return of an investor is reduced sometimes as the prices of the commodities go up all of a sudden. In financial sector this type of phenomenon is known as—
(A) Probability risk
(B) Market risk
(C) Inflation risk
(D) Credit risk
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
 
21Q. In India Minimum Support Prices are announced by the Govt. of India every year. Which of  the following commodities is not covered under this policy ?
(A) Sugar
(B) Wheat
(C) Cotton
(D) White goods
(E) All are covered under the policy
Answer : (D)
 
22Q. Which of the following policies of a country brings a crucial impact on the economic growth of the nation ?
1. Fiscal policy
2. Foreign policy
3. Social policies
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Answer : (C)
 
23Q. Which of the following financial products is not much popular in India as they are launched recently only ?
(A) Development Bonds
(B) Insurance Policies
(C) Mutual funds
(D) Sovereign Wealth Funds
(E) All are very popular products in India
Answer : (D)
 
24Q. Which of the following countries is given permanent membership of the World Trade Organisation recently ?
(A) Ukrain
(B) India
(C) Pakistan
(D) Sri Lanka
(E) None of these
Answer : (E)
 
25Q. When the prices of commodities, goods and services start declining consistently, the phenomenon is known as—
(A) Discount yield
(B) Deflation
(C) Negative growth
(D) Market capitalization
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
 
26Q. Which of the following products launched by most of the banks help farmers in getting instant credit for various agicultural purposes ?
(A) Kissan Credit Card
(B) Personal Loan
(C) Business Loan
(D) ATM Card
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)27Q. Which of the following policies of the financial sectors is basically designed to transferring local financial assets into foreign financial asset freely and at market determined exchange rates ? Policy of—
(A) Capital Account convertibility
(B) Financial Deficit Management
(C) Minimum Support Price
(D) Restrictive Trade Practices
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)

 
28Q. A customer wishes to purchase some US dollars in India. He/ She should go to—
(A) Public Debt Division of the RBI only
(B) American Express Bank Only
(C) RBI or any branch of a bank which is authorized for such business
(D) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
 
29Q. India’s Look East Policy was launched in the year—
(A) 1990
(B) 1992
(C) 1995
(D) 2000
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)30Q. Which of the following products of a bank is specifically designed to provide financial help to children in their higher studies in India or in a foreign nation ?
(A) Personal Loan
(B) Corporate Loan
(C) Educational Loan
(D) Mortgage Loan
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)

31Q. A Bank/Financial Organization these days relies heavily on e-commerce for its transaction.As a part of system security, it has introduced organization’s security awareness manual. This step of the organization can be classified under which one of the following categories of
measures for a business ?
(A) Preventive
(B) Compliance
(C) Corrective
(D) Detective
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)

 
32Q. Which of the following is the limitation of the ATMs owing to which people are required to visit branches of the bank ?
1. It does not accept deposits.
2. It has a limited cash disbursement capacity.
3. Lack of human interface
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these are limitations
Answer : (B)
 
33Q. Which of the following is/are the objectives of developing Special Economic Zones (SEZs) ?
1. Generate additional economic activities.
2. Generate additional employment opportunities.
3. Promotion of export of goods and services.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Answer : (E)34Q. An industry which is fighting hard to increase its market share in existing market (with new popular products) is known as—
(A) Market vendor
(B) Market operator
(C) Market leader
(D) Market follower
(E) Market challenger
Answer : (D)

35Q. Maruti view Tata Motors as prominent competitor but does not view Volvo as a competitor.This type of competition in the market is known as—
(A) Product competition
(B) Production flow competition
(C) Cost Control competition
(D) Service competition
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)

 
36. Which of the following is not a social assistance programme launched by the Govt. of India ?
(A) National Old Age Pension Scheme
(B) Annapurna Scheme
(C) National Family Benefit Scheme
(D) Indira Awaas Yojana
(E) All are social assistance programmes
Answer : (D)
 
37Q. What is the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) at present ?
(A) 14%
(B) 18%
(C) 20%
(D) 24%
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)38. Mr. Raman Singh has taken over as the Chief Minister of which of the following States after a General Election in November/December 2008 ?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Delhi
(D) Chhattisgarh
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)

 
39. The World Development Report- 2009 is released a few months earlier, by which of the following Organisations ?
(A) UNESCO
(B) ADB
(C) IMF
(D) WTO
(E) World Bank
Answer : (E)40. As per news published in newspapers, how much money Govt. of India has decided to invest in Infrastructure Sector as an initiative ? About—
(A) Rs. 30,000 crores
(B) Rs. 40,000 crores
(C) Rs. 50,000 crores
(D) Rs. 60,000 crores
(E) Rs. 70,000 crores
Answer : (E)

 
Computer Knowledge Test
 
1. A terabyte comprises
M.C.A. COMPUTER SCIENCE – II(a) 1024 gigabyte (b) 1024 kilobyte
(c) 1024 megabyte (d) 1024 byte

2. The access time refers to
(a) Time required to locate and retrieve stored data
(b) Time required to locate the lost data
(c) Time required to delete specific data on a certain memory location
(d) None of the above

3. Select the smallest memory size.
(a) Terabyte (b) Gigabyte
(c) Kilobyte (d) Megabyte

4. The type of RAM that works by staying on the row containing the requested bit and moves faster
through the columns reading each bit as it goes is
(a) DDR SDRAM (b) SDRAM
(c) FPM DRAM (d) RDRAM

5. The ROM chip which can be rewritten several times and requires the action of ultraviolet radiations to
erase its contents is
(a) Flash memory (b) PROM
(c) EEPROM (d) EPROM

6. The type of memory that uses in-circuit wiring to erase the content by applying electric field is
(a) PROM (b) Flash memory
(c) EAROM (d) EEPROM

7. Dynamic memory is also called as
(a) Internal processor memory (b) Primary memory
(c) External storage memory (d) Non-volatile memory

8. The memory which is utmost accessible to the processor is
(a) Cache memory (b) RAM
(c) Hard disk (d) Flash memory

9. The storage device that has high cost per bit of storage is
(a) SDRAM (b) Cache memory
(c) Read only Memory (d) Hard disk

10. The dual-port version of DRAM formerly used in graphics adaptors is
(a) FPM DRAM (b) EDO DRAM
(c) VRAM (d) DDR SDRAM

11. The secondary storage device that follows the sequential mode of access is
(a) Optical Disk (b) Magnetic Disk
(c) Magnetic Tape (d) None of these

12. FPI stands for
(a) Faults per inch (b) Frames per inch
(c) Figure per inch (d) Film per inch

13. The most common type of floppy size is
(a) 3½-inch (b) 5¼-inch
(c) 4¾-inch (d) None of these

14. A spiral shape track formatting is present in
(a) Floppy Disk (b) Optical Disk
(c) Hard Disk (d) Half-inch Tape Cartridge

15. A floppy can be write protected by
(a) Breaking the slider
(b) Positioning the slider to cover the hole
(c) Positioning the slider away from the hole
(d) A floppy cannot be write protected

16. Rotational delay time is also known as
(a) Seek time (b) Shift time
(c) Latency (d) Access time

17. The average drives have an access time of
(a) 14-29 ms (b) 9-14 ms
(c) 60-70 ms (d) None of these

18. In which kind of disk does the read/write head physically touches the surface?
(a) Hard Disk (b) Compact Disk
(c) Floppy Disk (d) None of these

19. RAID stands for
(a) Reproduce Array of Intelligent Disks
(b) Reproduce Array of Inexpensive Disks
(c) Redundant Array of Inexpensive Drives
(d) Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks

20. CD-ROM is a kind of
(a) Optical disk (b) Magneto-Optical disk
(c) Magnetic disk (d) None of these

 
21. A string of eight 0s and 1s is called a:
A. megabyte.
B. byte.
C. kilobyte.
D. gigabyte.
Answer: B
 
22. A ____________ is approximately one billion bytes.
A. kilobyte
B. bit
C. gigabyte
D. megabyte
Answer: C
22. A ____________ is approximately a million bytes.
A. gigabyte
B. kilobyte
C. megabyte
D. terabyte
Answer: C
 
23. ____________ is any part of the computer that you can physically touch.
A. Hardware
B. A device
C. A peripheral
D. An application
Answer: A
 
24. The components that process data are located in the:
A. input devices.
B. output devices.
C. system unit.
D. storage component.
Answer: C
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25. All of the following are examples of input devices EXCEPT a:
A. scanner.
B. mouse.
C. keyboard.
D. printer.
Answer: D
 
26. Which of the following is an example of an input device?
A. scanner
B. speaker
C. CD
D. printer
Answer: A
27. All of the following are examples of storage devices EXCEPT:
A. hard disk drives.
B. printers.
C. floppy disk drives.
D. CD drives.
Answer: B
 
28. The ____________, also called the “brains― of the computer, is responsible for
processing data.
A. motherboard
B. memory
C. RAM
D. central processing unit (CPU)
Answer: D
 
29. The CPU and memory are located on the:
A. expansion board.
B. motherboard.
C. storage device.
D. output device.
Answer: B
30. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are examples of:
A. application software.
B. system software.
C. operating system software.
D. platform software.
Answer: A
 
31. ____________ is a set of computer programs used on a computer to help perform tasks.
A. An instruction
B. Software
C. Memory
D. A processor
Answer: B
 
32. System software is the set of programs that enables your computer’s hardware devices
and ____________ software to work together.
A. management
B. processing
C. utility
D. application
Answer: D
 
33. The PC (personal computer) and the Apple Macintosh are examples of two different:
A. platforms.
B. applications.
C. programs.
D. storage devices.
Answer: A
 
34. Apple Macintoshes (Macs) and PCs use different ____________ to process data and different
operating systems.
A. languages
B. methods
C. CPUs
D. storage devices
Answer: C
 
35. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a:
A. network.
B. mainframe.
C. supercomputer.
D. client.
Answer: A
 
36. Smaller and less expensive PC-based servers are replacing ____________ in many
businesses.
A. supercomputers
B. clients
C. laptops
D. mainframes
Answer: D
 
37. ____________ are specially designed computers that perform complex calculations
extremely rapidly.
A. Servers
B. Supercomputers
C. Laptops
D. Mainframes
Answer: B
 
38. DSL is an example of a(n) ____________ connection.
A. network
B. wireless
C. slow
D. broadband
Answer: D
 
39. The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without
this access is known as the:
A. digital divide.
B. Internet divide.
C. Web divide.
D. broadband divide.
Answer: A
 
40. ____________ is the science revolving around the use of nanostructures to build devices on
an extremely small scale.
A. Nanotechnology
B. Micro-technology
C. Computer forensics
D. Artificial intelligence
Answer: A
 
Answers ::1. (a) 2. (a)  3. (c) 4. (b)   5. (d) 6. (d)  7. (d) 8. (a)  9. (b) 10. (c)  11. (c) 12. (b)  13. (a) 14. (b)  15. (c) 16. (c)  17. (b) 18. (c)  19. (d) 20. (c)


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6 Comments to “RBI Assistants Exam Model Question Papers 2012”

  1. prashant saxena says:

    sir plz provide the national insurance paper

  2. ram charan says:

    we want junior engineer previous exam papers pls above the email id thank you sir!

  3. sagar says:

    pls send me rbi mdel test paper

  4. Ryna says:

    Sir, please send me the previous year question papers of RBI for software engineers. As am continuing software engineering and RBI is coming to my college for recruitment next week.

  5. MEHUL JOSHI says:

    sir pls rrb je( exame date 9 sep 2012 ) model paper sent my email address.

  6. Ashish kumar says:

    sir pls rbi assistant 2012 model paper same for last year. pls confirmation in my email. id.

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